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Maybe this includes Asians too?
The Gentlemen's Agreement (1908), The Chinese Exclusion Act (1882) and The Immigration Act (1924) all prove otherwise.
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And do I really have to go over Slavery, Jim Crow Laws or the Three-Fifths Compromise?
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What was the reason that the US did not require more land after the Mexico-America War?
Acquiring more land would have produced more Mexican-American residents.
Why is anyone surprised when some don't think "Justice for All" applies to everyone?
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